Pisqa’ 1181
1
“For the pauper will never be gone from the midst of the Land” (Dt.15:11).
But elsewhere, He says:
“Surely, there shall be no pauper among you” (Dt.15:4).
Now, how can these two verses be reconciled?
The point is that when you fulfill the will
of the All-Present,
the pauper will be found among the others,
but when you do not fulfill the will
of the All-Present,
the pauper will be found among you.2
“Therefore I am commanding you, saying” (Dt.15:11)—
therefore implies “for this reason.”
“I am commanding you, saying”—
I’m giving you sound advice for your own good!
“Open your hand wide to your brother, your pauper who is needy” (Dt.15:11)—
why are all these mentioned?
Does he need bread? Give him bread!
Dough? Give him dough!
Money? Give him money!
Someone to place food in his mouth?
Place food in his mouth!3
2
“If your Hebrew brother . . . is sold to you” (Dt.15:12).
How do I know that
when you acquire a slave,
you should only acquire a Hebrew slave?
The Teaching states:
“When you acquire a Hebrew slave” (Ex.21:2)
How do I know that
when he is sold,
he should be sold only to you?
The Teaching states:
“When your brother among you falls upon hard times, and he is sold to you” (Lv.25:39).
How do I know that
if the court sells him, they can only sell him to you?
The Teaching states:
“If . . . he is sold—to you” (Dt.15:12).4
3
“Your Hebrew brother or Hebrew woman” (Dt.15:12)—
in some ways,
[the rule for] a male Hebrew slave differs
from [the rule for] a female Hebrew slave,
and [the rule for]a female Hebrew slave differs
from [the rule for] a male Hebrew slave.
A male Hebrew is liberated
upon completion [of six] years of service,
or at the Jubilee year,
or by a pro-rated monetary payment—
none of which applies to a female Hebrew slave.
Yet a female Hebrew slave
is liberated at [the onset of] signs of sexual maturity,
and cannot be re-sold to another owner [upon the death of the first],
and they may buy her freedom against her will—
none of which applies to a male Hebrew slave.5
Indeed, since in some ways
[the rule for] a male Hebrew slave differs
From [the rule for] a female Hebrew slave,
and [the rule for] a female Hebrew slave differs
from [the rule for] a male Hebrew slave,
[Scripture] must discuss a male Hebrew slave,
and then must discuss a female Hebrew slave.6
4
“Then he shall serve you for six years” (Dt.15:12)—
[this applies] even to the [deceased owner’s] son.
Is it possible to say that
[shall serve you applies even to the owner’s heir?
The Teaching states elsewhere:
“Six years he must serve” (Ex.21:2)—
[excluding the deceased owner’s heir].
Now, who inspired you
to include the son, but to exclude the heir?
I can include the son,
for, indeed, he takes his [deceased] father’s place
in exercising the right of [setting aside
a slave-girl for] concubinage,
and [in exercising the right] to redeem
an ancestral field from its current owners.
[It follows, therefore, that
the Hebrew slave shall serve his deceased owner’s son as well].
Similarly, I can exclude the owner’s heir,
for, indeed, he may not [as an heir]
exercise the right of concubinage [like a son]
or redeem an ancestral field [like a son].
[Therefore, the heir he has no rights to inherited the Hebrew slave].7
5
If the Hebrew slave fled and returned—
how do we know that
he must complete the remainder
of his [six-year] term
[by compensating his owner for the time he was idle]?
The Teaching states:
“Six years he must serve” (Ex.21:2).
If he became ill and recovered —
is it possible to say that
the slave must return to the owner
the price of his idleness?
The Teaching states:
“He shall be set free, without encumbrance” 8 (Ex.21:2).